Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): If the securities with less than perfect negative correlation between their price movements are combined, portfolio risk can be reduced significantly. Reason (R): The term with negative correlation has the effect of reducing the computed value of total portfolio risk, given other terms that are positive. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
The question asks us to evaluate an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) related to portfolio risk reduction when combining securities with less than perfect negative correlation.
Assertion (A) states: "If the securities with less than perfect negative correlation between their price movements are combined, portfolio risk can be reduced significantly."
Let's break this down:
If securities have perfect positive correlation ($\rho = +1$), combining them offers no diversification benefit in terms of risk reduction; the portfolio risk is just the weighted average of individual risks. If they have perfect negative correlation ($\rho = -1$), it's theoretically possible to eliminate all unsystematic risk by combining them in specific proportions. When securities have less than perfect negative correlation (meaning the correlation coefficient is between -1 and 0, i.e., $-1 < \rho < 0$), combining them still provides significant diversification benefits. When one asset performs poorly, the other is likely (though not guaranteed) to perform better, smoothing out the overall portfolio returns and reducing volatility (risk) compared to holding a single asset or positively correlated assets.
Therefore, Assertion (A) is correct.
Reason (R) states: "The term with negative correlation has the effect of reducing the computed value of total portfolio risk, given other terms that are positive."
To understand this, let's look at the formula for the variance of a two-asset portfolio (Variance is a common measure of risk):
The variance ($\sigma_p^2$) of a portfolio consisting of two assets, A and B, is given by:
\(\sigma_p^2 = w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2 w_A w_B \text{Cov}(R_A, R_B)\)
Where:
Covariance is related to correlation ($\rho_{AB}$) by the formula: $\text{Cov}(R_A, R_B) = \rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B$. Substituting this into the portfolio variance formula:
\(\sigma_p^2 = w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2 w_A w_B \sigma_A \sigma_B \rho_{AB}\)
In this formula:
If the correlation ($\rho_{AB}$) is negative (as stated in the context of Assertion A, specifically "less than perfect negative correlation", i.e., $-1 < \rho_{AB} < 0$), then the covariance term $2 w_A w_B \sigma_A \sigma_B \rho_{AB}$ becomes negative. A negative value for this term will reduce the total calculated value of the portfolio variance ($\sigma_p^2$) compared to what it would be if the correlation were zero or positive.
Therefore, Reason (R) correctly describes the mathematical effect of negative correlation on the portfolio risk calculation. Reason (R) is correct.
Assertion (A) claims that combining securities with less than perfect negative correlation reduces portfolio risk significantly. Reason (R) explains *why* this risk reduction occurs: the negative correlation introduces a negative term into the portfolio variance formula, which reduces the overall portfolio risk value. Reason (R) provides the mathematical basis for the statement made in Assertion (A).
Thus, Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) provides a valid explanation for why Assertion (A) is true regarding portfolio risk and negative correlation.
| Statement | Evaluation | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Assertion (A): If securities with less than perfect negative correlation are combined, portfolio risk can be reduced significantly. | Correct | Combining assets with negative correlation helps offset price movements, reducing overall portfolio volatility (risk). |
| Reason (R): The term with negative correlation reduces the computed value of total portfolio risk. | Correct | In the portfolio variance formula, a negative correlation results in a negative covariance term, which subtracts from the total variance. |
| Relationship: (R) is the explanation of (A). | Yes | (R) explains the mathematical reason behind the risk reduction stated in (A). |
| Concept | Description | Relevance to Portfolio Risk |
|---|---|---|
| Diversification | Combining different assets in a portfolio. | Helps reduce unsystematic (specific) risk. |
| Correlation Coefficient ($\rho$) | Measures the linear relationship between the returns of two assets (range -1 to +1). | Determines the extent of diversification benefit. Lower correlation means greater potential for risk reduction. |
| Portfolio Variance ($\sigma_p^2$) | A measure of the total risk (volatility) of a portfolio. | Calculated using individual asset variances, weights, and the correlation (or covariance) between assets. |
| Negative Correlation ($-1 \leq \rho < 0$) | Assets' prices tend to move in opposite directions. | Allows for significant risk reduction when combined in a portfolio. Perfect negative correlation ($\rho = -1$) offers maximum reduction potential. |
| Covariance | Measures how two variables move together (Cov(A,B) = $\rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B$). | The covariance term in the portfolio variance formula directly reflects the diversification effect based on correlation. |
The degree to which portfolio risk can be reduced through diversification depends critically on the correlation between the assets included in the portfolio. Here’s a quick overview:
In the real world, finding assets with perfect negative correlation is rare. However, assets with low or negative correlation are sought after by portfolio managers to improve the risk-return profile of a portfolio. Combining assets with "less than perfect negative correlation" is a common and effective strategy for significant portfolio risk reduction.
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If X ∼ N (0, 1) and Y = X2 then the correlation coefficient r (X, Y) is
Calculate the correlation coefficient between the following values :
x: 3, 5, 1, 7, 5
y: 4, 3, 0, 8, 2
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\(\rm{y = 0.8x + 9.8}\) and \(\rm{x = 10.2 + 0.6y}\)
The coefficient of correlation between \(\rm{x}\) and \(\rm{y}\) is