For linear electromagnetic circuit, which of the following statements holds good?
Field energy is equal to the co-energy
In electromagnetic systems, energy is stored in the magnetic field. This stored energy is often referred to as field energy. Related to field energy is a concept called co-energy, which is useful in calculating forces in magnetic systems, especially when the relationship between flux linkage and current is non-linear.
Let's define these terms mathematically for a simple magnetic system where flux linkage ($\lambda$) is a function of current ($i$).
\( W_f = \int_{0}^{\lambda} i(\lambda') d\lambda' \)
\( W_c = \int_{0}^{i} \lambda(i') di' \)
The total area of the rectangle formed by the point $(\lambda, i)$ on the characteristic curve is given by $\lambda i$. For any electromagnetic system (linear or non-linear), the sum of field energy and co-energy is equal to this product:
\( W_f + W_c = \lambda i \)
A linear electromagnetic circuit is one where the flux linkage ($\lambda$) is directly proportional to the current ($i$). This relationship is defined by the inductance ($L$), which is a constant value in a linear system:
\( \lambda = L i \)
Let's calculate the field energy ($W_f$) for a linear system using the formula \( W_f = \int_{0}^{\lambda} i(\lambda') d\lambda' \). From $\lambda = Li$, we have $i = \lambda/L$. Substituting this into the integral:
\( W_f = \int_{0}^{\lambda} \frac{\lambda'}{L} d\lambda' = \frac{1}{L} \int_{0}^{\lambda} \lambda' d\lambda' \)
Integrating $\lambda'$ with respect to $\lambda'$ gives $\frac{(\lambda')^2}{2}$. Evaluating the definite integral from 0 to $\lambda$:
\( W_f = \frac{1}{L} \left[ \frac{(\lambda')^2}{2} \right]_{0}^{\lambda} = \frac{1}{L} \left( \frac{\lambda^2}{2} - \frac{0^2}{2} \right) = \frac{\lambda^2}{2L} \)
Now, let's calculate the co-energy ($W_c$) for the linear system using the formula \( W_c = \int_{0}^{i} \lambda(i') di' \). From $\lambda = Li$, we directly substitute $\lambda(i') = L i'$ into the integral:
\( W_c = \int_{0}^{i} L i' di' = L \int_{0}^{i} i' di' \)
Integrating $i'$ with respect to $i'$ gives $\frac{(i')^2}{2}$. Evaluating the definite integral from 0 to $i$:
\( W_c = L \left[ \frac{(i')^2}{2} \right]_{0}^{i} = L \left( \frac{i^2}{2} - \frac{0^2}{2} \right) = \frac{1}{2} L i^2 \)
Since $\lambda = Li$, we can substitute this back into the expression for $W_f$ or substitute $i = \lambda/L$ into the expression for $W_c$ to see they are equivalent:
Alternatively, we can also express both in terms of both $\lambda$ and $i$ for the linear case:
\( W_f = \frac{1}{2} \lambda i \)
\( W_c = \frac{1}{2} \lambda i \)
From the derivations, it is clear that for a linear electromagnetic circuit, the expressions for field energy ($W_f$) and co-energy ($W_c$) are identical.
\( W_f = W_c = \frac{1}{2} L i^2 = \frac{\lambda^2}{2L} = \frac{1}{2} \lambda i \)
Based on our analysis for a linear electromagnetic circuit:
Therefore, for a linear system, the field energy is equal to the co-energy.
This is generally not true for non-linear electromagnetic circuits, where the inductance $L$ is not a constant and $\lambda$ is a non-linear function of $i$. In non-linear systems, $W_f$ and $W_c$ are typically different, but their sum still equals $\lambda i$.
The statement that holds good for a linear electromagnetic circuit is that the field energy is equal to the co-energy.
In Faraday's Law application, current will be induced:
A magnetic material has a hysteresis loop area of 0.4 J for each cycle. If the material is subjected to a frequency of 40 Hz, what is the total hysteresis loss per second?
A magnet is kept in the medium of air surrounded by an iron ring. The magnetic lines of force from the magnet will be
The magnetostatics highly relies on which property?
What is the coercive magnetic force (H C) value of ceramic type of permanent magnetic material?