$Y_{4 \times 1} = X_{4 \times 4} \beta_{4 \times 1} + \varepsilon_{4 \times 1}$, where $\text{Disp}(\varepsilon) = \sigma^2 I_4$ for some $\sigma^2 > 0$. One needs to choose the design matrix $X$ such that its elements take values in the set $\{-1, 0, 1\}$. Now, consider the following three choices of $X$
$X_1 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$,
$X_2 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & -1 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$ and
$X_3 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & -1 & -1 \\ 1 & -1 & 1 & -1 \\ 1 & -1 & -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
Which of the following statements are true?
The problem asks us to evaluate three design matrices ($X_1, X_2, X_3$) for a linear model $Y = X\beta + \varepsilon$, where $\text{Disp}(\varepsilon) = \sigma^2 I_4$. We need to determine which of the given statements regarding estimability, uncorrelatedness of estimates, and efficiency are true.
A vector parameter $\beta$ is estimable if and only if the rank of the design matrix $X$ equals the number of parameters, which is the number of columns in $X$. Here, $p=4$. We need to check if $\text{rank}(X) = 4$ for $X_1, X_2,$ and $X_3$.
Since $\text{rank}(X) = 4$ for all three matrices, statement A is true.
The variance-covariance matrix of the least squares estimator $\hat{\beta}$ is $\text{Var}(\hat{\beta}) = \sigma^2 (X'X)^{-1}$. The estimates $\hat{\beta}_i$ and $\hat{\beta}_j$ are uncorrelated if the corresponding off-diagonal elements of $\text{Var}(\hat{\beta})$ are zero. This occurs if and only if the matrix $(X'X)^{-1}$ is diagonal, which means $X'X$ must be diagonal. This condition is satisfied if the columns of the design matrix $X$ are orthogonal.
Since the columns of $X_1, X_2,$ and $X_3$ are orthogonal, $X'X$ is diagonal for all three cases. Thus, statement B is true.
A design matrix is generally considered "better" if it leads to more efficient estimates, meaning smaller variances. The variance of $\hat{\beta}_i$ is $\sigma^2$ times the $i$-th diagonal element of $(X'X)^{-1}$.
Based on the analysis:
The true statements are A, B, and C.
Consider the linear statistical model
$y_{ij} = \mu + \tau_i + \varepsilon_{ij}; \quad i = 1, 2, \cdots, a; \quad j = 1, 2, \cdots, n$
where $\mu$ is unknown, $\tau_i$ are independently and identically distributed as $N(0, \sigma_\tau^2)$, $\varepsilon_{ij}$ are independently and identically distributed as $N(0, \sigma^2)$; $\tau_i$ and $\varepsilon_{ij}$ are independent for all $i$ and $j$. Note that $\tau_i$ is the $i^{th}$ treatment effect. Suppose $SS_{total}, SS_{treatment}, SS_{error}$ are total sum of squares, total treatment sum of squares and error sum of squares, respectively. To test :$H_0 : \sigma_\tau^2 = 0$ vs $H_A : \sigma_\tau^2 > 0$ which of the following statements is not true?
Consider the model $Y = X\beta + \epsilon$, where $Y = \begin{bmatrix} y_1 \\ y_2 \\ \vdots \\ y_n \end{bmatrix}, X = \left( (x_{ij}) \right)_{n \times p}$ and $\beta = \begin{bmatrix} \beta_1 \\ \vdots \\ \beta_p \end{bmatrix}, \epsilon = \begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \\ \vdots \\ \epsilon_n \end{bmatrix}$. $E(\epsilon) = 0$ and $D(\epsilon) = \sigma^2 I_n, p < n$. Let $\hat{\beta}$ be the solution of $X^T X \beta = X^T Y$. Which of the following are true?
Let $X_1, X_2, \ldots$ be a random sample from uniform $(0, 3\theta), \theta > 0$. Define
$T_n = \frac{1}{3} \max\{X_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n\}$. Which of the following is NOT true?