A man bought two dogs for Rs. 2600. He sold one of them at a loss of 28% and the other at a profit of 36%. If each dog was sold for the same price. The cost price of the dog which was sold at loss was?
Rs. 1700
This problem involves calculating the cost price of one of the dogs when two items are sold under different profit/loss conditions but at the same selling price.
Let $CP_1$ be the cost price of the first dog (sold at a loss) and $CP_2$ be the cost price of the second dog (sold at a profit).
From the problem statement, we have:
The selling price (SP) for the first dog (sold at 28% loss) is:
$SP = CP_1 \times (1 - \frac{28}{100}) = CP_1 \times (1 - 0.28) = CP_1 \times 0.72$
The selling price (SP) for the second dog (sold at 36% profit) is:
$SP = CP_2 \times (1 + \frac{36}{100}) = CP_2 \times (1 + 0.36) = CP_2 \times 1.36$
Since the selling prices are the same for both dogs:
We need to find $CP_1$. We can express $CP_2$ in terms of $CP_1$ using the first equation:
$CP_2 = 2600 - CP_1$
Now, substitute this expression for $CP_2$ into the second equation:
$CP_1 \times 0.72 = (2600 - CP_1) \times 1.36$
Expand the right side of the equation:
$0.72 \times CP_1 = 2600 \times 1.36 - 1.36 \times CP_1$
$0.72 \times CP_1 = 3536 - 1.36 \times CP_1$
Now, gather all terms involving $CP_1$ on one side:
$0.72 \times CP_1 + 1.36 \times CP_1 = 3536$
Combine the $CP_1$ terms:
$2.08 \times CP_1 = 3536$
Finally, solve for $CP_1$ by dividing both sides by 2.08:
$CP_1 = \frac{3536}{2.08}$
$CP_1 = 1700$
The cost price of the dog which was sold at a loss of 28% is Rs. 1700.
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