A function f : \(\mathbb{C}\)\(\longmapsto \mathbb{C}\) is said to be analytic at ∞, if the function g defined by \(g(w)=f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\) is analytic at 0 with an appropriate value given for g(0). Which of the following statements is true?
The question asks to identify the true statement regarding functions that are analytic at infinity ($\infty$). The definition provided states that a function \(f : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}\) is analytic at $\infty$ if the function \(g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\) is analytic at \(w=0\).
Being analytic at a point \(w_0\) means that the function can be represented by a power series in a neighborhood of \(w_0\). For \(g(w)\) to be analytic at \(w=0\), it must be defined and have a convergent power series expansion in some open disk centered at 0, i.e., for \(|w| < \delta\) for some \(\delta > 0\).
Let \(f(z) = a_n z^n + a_{n-1} z^{n-1} + \dots + a_1 z + a_0\) be a non-constant polynomial, where \(a_n \ne 0\) and \(n \ge 1\).
The function \(g(w)\) is given by \(g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\):
\[g(w) = a_n \left(\frac{1}{w}\right)^n + a_{n-1} \left(\frac{1}{w}\right)^{n-1} + \dots + a_1 \left(\frac{1}{w}\right) + a_0\]
\[g(w) = \frac{a_n}{w^n} + \frac{a_{n-1}}{w^{n-1}} + \dots + \frac{a_1}{w} + a_0\]
For a non-constant polynomial (\(n \ge 1, a_n \ne 0\)), the term \(\frac{a_n}{w^n}\) has a pole of order \(n\) at \(w=0\). A function with a pole at a point is not analytic at that point. Therefore, \(g(w)\) is not analytic at \(w=0\).
So, any non-constant polynomial is not analytic at ∞. Statement 1 is false.
If \(f\) is analytic at ∞, then \(g(w) = f(1/w)\) is analytic at \(w=0\). If \(g(w)\) is analytic at \(w=0\), it is defined and analytic in some open disk \(D(0, \delta)\) for \(\delta > 0\). A function analytic on a disk is bounded on any closed disk contained within that disk. Thus, \(g(w)\) is bounded for \(|w| \le \delta/2\). This means \(|f(1/w)| \le M\) for some constant \(M\) whenever \(|w| \le \delta/2\).
Let \(z = 1/w\). The condition \(|w| \le \delta/2\) is equivalent to \(|1/z| \le \delta/2\), which means \(|z| \ge 2/\delta\). So, \(f(z)\) is bounded for all \(z\) outside a certain closed disk centered at the origin (i.e., for large values of \(|z|\)).
However, the statement says "f is bounded". This could mean bounded on its entire domain. Consider the function \(f(z) = 1/z\). This function is analytic on \(\mathbb{C} \setminus \{0\}\). Let's check if it's analytic at ∞.
\[g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) = \frac{1}{1/w} = w\]
The function \(g(w)=w\) is analytic at \(w=0\). Thus, \(f(z) = 1/z\) is analytic at ∞. But \(f(z)=1/z\) is not bounded on its domain \(\mathbb{C} \setminus \{0\}\) because as \(z \to 0\), \(|f(z)| \to \infty\).
So, if "f is bounded" means bounded on its entire domain, Statement 2 is false. If it means bounded for large \(|z|\), it is true. Given the other options and the likely context, "bounded" probably refers to the entire domain. Statement 2 is likely false.
We need to check if \(g(w) = f(1/w)\) is analytic at \(w=0\). Let \(f(z) = e^{\frac{1}{z-z_0}}\).
\[g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) = e^{\frac{1}{\frac{1}{w} - z_0}}\] \[g(w) = e^{\frac{1}{\frac{1-z_0w}{w}}} = e^{\frac{w}{1-z_0w}}\]
The function \(g(w) = e^{\phi(w)}\), where \(\phi(w) = \frac{w}{1-z_0w}\).
The exponential function \(e^u\) is analytic everywhere in \(\mathbb{C}\).
The function \(\phi(w) = \frac{w}{1-z_0w}\) is a rational function. A rational function is analytic everywhere its denominator is non-zero.
Case 1: \(z_0 = 0\). \(f(z) = e^{\frac{1}{z}}\). \(g(w) = e^{\frac{w}{1-0 \cdot w}} = e^w\). The function \(g(w) = e^w\) is analytic everywhere in \(\mathbb{C}\), including at \(w=0\).
Case 2: \(z_0 \ne 0\). The denominator of \(\phi(w)\) is \(1-z_0w\). This is zero when \(1-z_0w = 0\), which means \(w = 1/z_0\). Since \(z_0 \ne 0\), \(1/z_0\) is a finite non-zero value. The function \(\phi(w) = \frac{w}{1-z_0w}\) is analytic at \(w=0\) because the denominator \(1-z_0 \cdot 0 = 1 \ne 0\). Since \(\phi(w)\) is analytic at \(w=0\), and the exponential function is analytic, the composition \(g(w) = e^{\phi(w)}\) is also analytic at \(w=0\).
In both cases (\(z_0 = 0\) and \(z_0 \ne 0\)), \(g(w) = f(1/w)\) is analytic at \(w=0\). Therefore, \(f(z) = e^{\frac{1}{z-z_0}}\) is analytic at ∞ for any \(z_0 \in \mathbb{C}\).
Statement 3 is true.
An entire function is a function that is analytic on the entire complex plane \(\mathbb{C}\). For an entire function \(f(z)\) to be analytic at ∞, \(g(w) = f(1/w)\) must be analytic at \(w=0\).
Consider the entire function \(f(z) = z\). \(g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) = \frac{1}{w}\). The function \(g(w) = 1/w\) has a pole at \(w=0\). It is not analytic at \(w=0\). So, \(f(z)=z\) is an entire function that is not analytic at ∞.
Consider the entire function \(f(z) = e^z\). \(g(w) = f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) = e^{\frac{1}{w}}\). The function \(g(w) = e^{1/w}\) has an essential singularity at \(w=0\). It is not analytic at \(w=0\).
In fact, the only entire functions that are analytic at ∞ are the constant functions. This is because if \(f(z)\) is entire and analytic at ∞, it is analytic on the extended complex plane \(\mathbb{C} \cup \{\infty\}\). Such a function is necessarily constant by Liouville's theorem extended to the sphere.
So, not any entire function can be extended to an analytic function at ∞. Statement 4 is false.
Based on the analysis of each statement, only Statement 3 is true.
The function \(f(z) = e^{\frac{1}{z-z_0}}\) for any \(z_0 \in \mathbb{C}\) is analytic at ∞.
If f (z) \( = \begin{cases} \frac {|z|}{Re(z)} &, \quad \text{if } {} \text{Re} (z)\neq 0 \\ 0 &, \quad \text{if } \text{ Re (z) = 0} \end{cases} \), then-
For z ∈ ℂ let f(z) = \(\left\{ \begin{matrix} \rm \frac{\bar{z}^2}{z}\ if \ z \ne 0,\\\ \rm 0 \ \ otherwise. \end{matrix} \right.\)
Then which of the following statements is false?
Let f, g be entire functions such that \(\lim _{z \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f(z)}{z^n}=\lim _{z \rightarrow \infty} \frac{g(z)}{z^n}=1\) for some fixed positive integer n. Which of the following statements is true?
For z ∈ \(\mathbb{C}\), let ℜz denotes its real part. Let f be an entire function satisfying |f(z)| ≤ |z| |ℜz| on \(\mathbb{C}\). Which of the following statements are true?
For every n ≥ 1, consider the entire function \(p_n(z)=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{z^k}{k !}\). Which of the following statements are true?