Question
A 64 year old man presents with chest pain of 24 hours duration. His ECG reveals ST elevation, Anterior Wall Myocardial Infarction. The preferred treatment modality for him is:
The correct answer is
Nitroglycerin infusion, Aspirin and Beta blockers
Anterior Wall MI Preferred Treatment
The patient presents with symptoms and ECG findings consistent with an Anterior Wall Myocardial Infarction (STEMI).
Analysis of Preferred Modality
The question asks for the preferred treatment modality. Based on the provided options, the focus is on immediate medical management.
- Nitroglycerin infusion: Acts as a vasodilator, reducing chest pain and decreasing the workload on the heart by lowering preload and afterload.
- Aspirin: An essential antiplatelet medication that helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of re-occlusion or new clot development in the coronary arteries.
- Beta blockers: These medications reduce heart rate, lower blood pressure, and decrease myocardial contractility, thereby lowering the heart's oxygen demand.
This combination therapy directly addresses the acute symptoms of STEMI, inhibits thrombotic processes, and reduces myocardial oxygen demand, making it a critical component of initial management.
Option 4: Nitroglycerin infusion, Aspirin and Beta blockers represents the preferred initial medical management strategy.Was this answer helpful?
Important Questions from Ischemic Heart Disease
- Which amongst the following should be considered in a patient with acute chest pain and ST segment elevation in the precordial leads?
1. Acute myocardial infarction
2. Acute hyperkalemia
3. Pericarditis
4. Hypocalcemia
5. Oesophagitis
6. Pneumothorax
Select the correct answer using the code given below. - Which amongst the following is the most powerful independent risk factor for atherosclerosis?
- A 40-year old woman presents with sudden onset palpitations. An ECG done reveals narrow-QRS complex tachycardia. The most likely diagnosis is:
- An elderly-man with history of Diabetes mellitus and Coronary Artery Disease comes for follow-up, with complaints of muscle pains. Which one of the following drugs could be the most likely cause?
- All of the following are indications for treadmill testing/exercise-testing EXCEPT:
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