This case involves a 60-year-old male with known Marfan syndrome presenting with acute, severe symptoms. Key findings must be correlated to determine the most likely diagnosis.
The combination of Marfan syndrome, severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back, significant hypertension, and widening of the superior mediastinum strongly points towards Dissection of aorta as the most likely diagnosis.
Consider the following statements with regard to pulmonary embolism :
1. Unexplained breathlessness is the most common symptom.
2. When congestive heart failure or pneumonia fail to improve despite standard medical treatment, occult pulmonary embolism should be considered.
3. Patients with high clinical likelihood of venous thromboembolism should first undergo D-dimer testing alone without obligatory imaging tests.
Which of the statements given above are correct?