All Exams Test series for 1 year @ ₹349 only
Question

A 39-year-old female presents with severe autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Which of the following should be the initial step in its management?

The correct answer is
Prednisolone

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia: Initial Management

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks red blood cells. The goal of initial management is to quickly suppress the immune system and reduce red blood cell destruction.

First-Line Therapy Rationale

The primary goal is rapid immunosuppression. Corticosteroids are the cornerstone of initial therapy for AIHA because they effectively reduce antibody production and hemolysis.

  • Prednisolone: This corticosteroid is the standard first-line treatment. It helps decrease the immune system's attack on red blood cells, alleviating the anemia.

Evaluating Other Options

The other options are typically considered in specific circumstances or after initial therapy fails:

  • Rituximab: Often used as a second-line treatment for patients who don't respond adequately to corticosteroids or for those needing long-term therapy.
  • Emergency splenectomy: This surgical option is reserved for patients with severe AIHA who are refractory to medical management (corticosteroids and sometimes Rituximab). It is not an initial step.
  • Plasmapheresis: This procedure removes antibodies from the blood. It may be used in very severe or specific situations (e.g., certain types of AIHA like cold agglutinin disease crisis) but is not the standard initial treatment for most AIHA cases.

Therefore, the initial step in managing severe autoimmune hemolytic anemia involves starting corticosteroids like Prednisolone.

Was this answer helpful?

Important Questions from Anemia

  1. Which one of the following is a cause of relative erythrocytosis?
  2. Which one of the following conditions characteristically may present with a triad of haemolysis, pancytopenia and venous thrombosis?
  3. Which one of the following is associated with low MCV of red blood cells?
  4. Which one of the following is the primary underlying mechanism of haemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)?
  5. Which of the following statements regarding G6PD enzyme deficiency are correct?
    1. It is an X-linked deficiency.
    2. Geographical distribution parallels the malaria belt.
    3. Consumption of fava beans is protective.
    4. Transfusion support may be life saving.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Need Expert Advice?

Start Your Preparation with Prepp Mobile App

Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Download the app from Google Play & App Store
Prepp Mobile App